Q.
Answers (8)
1.
Report abuse
Useful
(0)
Not Useful
(0)
Your vote on this answer has already been received
2.
Report abuse
Useful
(0)
Not Useful
(0)
Your vote on this answer has already been received
3.
Report abuse
Useful
(0)
Not Useful
(0)
Your vote on this answer has already been received
4.
Report abuse
Useful
(0)
Not Useful
(0)
Your vote on this answer has already been received
5.
There is no such thing as an "Aryan" race; that is a Nazi term.
The word "aryan" is derived from a Sanskrit word meaning "noble" or "honorable." In the late nineteenth century, Europeans began using the word as a description for a group of people - they believed that the original people who spoke the early Indo-European language must have been from a single race. They called this "race" the "Aryan" race. Now, we realize that you cannot base a race upon what language the people speak - you must base it on genetics. Back then, they didn't understand science the way we do now, and they believed in an "Aryan race" who lived in Iraq and India. Max Muller is actually the first person who used the term "Aryan race" in writing, in his article Lectures on the Science of Language in 1861. Muller himself stated that he did not use the term "race" to mean a separate sub-group of humans, but to refer to a line of descent only. Muller's work led to a big argument among scientists, and many of them ...more
Answered by iqbal seth, 06 Jan 08:10 am
The word "aryan" is derived from a Sanskrit word meaning "noble" or "honorable." In the late nineteenth century, Europeans began using the word as a description for a group of people - they believed that the original people who spoke the early Indo-European language must have been from a single race. They called this "race" the "Aryan" race. Now, we realize that you cannot base a race upon what language the people speak - you must base it on genetics. Back then, they didn't understand science the way we do now, and they believed in an "Aryan race" who lived in Iraq and India. Max Muller is actually the first person who used the term "Aryan race" in writing, in his article Lectures on the Science of Language in 1861. Muller himself stated that he did not use the term "race" to mean a separate sub-group of humans, but to refer to a line of descent only. Muller's work led to a big argument among scientists, and many of them ...more
Report abuse
Useful
(0)
Not Useful
(0)
Your vote on this answer has already been received
6.
Aryan /rjn/ is an English language loanword derived from the Sanskrit rya ('Noble').[1][2][3] In present-day academia, the terms "Indo-Iranian" and "Indo-European" have, according to many, made most uses of the term 'Aryan' minimal, and 'Aryan' is now mostly limited to its appearance in the term "Indo-Aryan" for Indic languages and their speakers.
Western notions of an "Aryan race" rose to prominence in late-19th and early-20th century racialist thought, an idea most notably embraced by Nazi ideology (see master race). The Nazis believed that the "Nordic peoples" (who were also referred to as the "Germanic peoples") represent an ideal and "pure race" that was the purest representation of the original racial stock of those who were then called the Proto-Aryans.[4] The Nazis declared that the Nordics were the true Aryans because they claimed that they were more "pure" (less racially mixed with non-native Indo-European peoples) than other people of what were then called the Aryan peoples ...more
Answered by dhirendra Singh, 06 Jan 02:37 am
Western notions of an "Aryan race" rose to prominence in late-19th and early-20th century racialist thought, an idea most notably embraced by Nazi ideology (see master race). The Nazis believed that the "Nordic peoples" (who were also referred to as the "Germanic peoples") represent an ideal and "pure race" that was the purest representation of the original racial stock of those who were then called the Proto-Aryans.[4] The Nazis declared that the Nordics were the true Aryans because they claimed that they were more "pure" (less racially mixed with non-native Indo-European peoples) than other people of what were then called the Aryan peoples ...more
Report abuse
Useful
(0)
Not Useful
(0)
Your vote on this answer has already been received
7.
Report abuse
Useful
(0)
Not Useful
(0)
Your vote on this answer has already been received
8.
As per some version, itz originated from present day persian countries.m
Answered by MAdhavan Avadhany, 05 Jan 10:52 pm
Report abuse
Useful
(0)
Not Useful
(0)
Your vote on this answer has already been received