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Q.

7. The general belief is that the Kashmiri populace has remained mostly disaffected from India. Why has it not been possible for India, which claims to be among the world's freest democracies to respond effectively?

Asked by Sharma, 17 Mar '10 07:07 am
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Answers (2)

 
1.

There are absolutely no grounds to assume that the Kashmiris have remained disaffected from India since the Accession. The basis of the Accession has been discussed in answer to question No.1. After the accession there has been no persistent disaffection other than sporadic, characterizing all parts of India and remedied over time by the democratic process. There have been elections held in Kashmir since 1951 as in other parts of J&K State and in the rest of the country. Although there have been allegations of malpractices in some elections, these have not been generally upheld by the legal system. Even the most trenchant critics admit that the elections of 1977 were totally free. Secession was not an issue in that election or in any other.

Even though it is alleged that the current insurgency arose as a result of "rigging" of the 1987 election, it is nowhere claimed that secession was an issue even then. If indeed there was interference in the election process (which is in itself u ...more
Answered by jameel ahmed, 17 Mar '10 07:30 am

 
  
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Because pak terrorist have continuously attacked kashmir since 1947 till date they violate border and create terror in India including kashmir
Answered by Kuldeep Khatau, 17 Mar '10 07:09 am

 
  
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